I am convinced that the numerical notation for fractions does not require an apostrophe. However, a friend of mine insists on using one. Thus, I ask all grammatically inclined persons to inform me: Should one write 9th or 9'th?
Posted by funke at 2.09.05 9:40 | TrackBack | Posted to Confessions of a Grammar Nazi9th definitely. An apostrophe is used only for missing letters -- at least that is what I was taught. Seeing as 9=nine there are no missing letter, thus no apostrophe is needed. Oh yeah, it is used for possession as well. But seeing as "9th" is an adjective that is moot point.
Posted by: Carrie at 2.09.05 10:159th.
But apostrophes are also used to show the plural/possessive of a time span. Example: The 1920's were a time of decadence and immorality in America.
Good luck, and keep trekking onward for good grammar.
Posted by: Krista at 2.09.05 11:20Darling Sarah, don't ever succumb to the urge to write 9'th. Oh, the horror! Please no! do we spell it out nine'th? NO! There's no apostrophe because it is neither possessive nor a contraction. Wow, I get so heated up so easily over really insignificant details.
Posted by: Little Miss at 2.09.05 17:18